Practicing and analysing the General Awareness (GA) section of the RBI Grade B previous year question papers of 2023 Phase 1 can give you a competitive edge in the upcoming exam.
This analysis offers valuable insights into the distribution of questions, difficulty levels, and high-priority topics, making it essential for both first-timers and reappearing candidates.
Moreover, for those reattempting the exam, previous year questions (PYQs) help identify your past mistakes and ensure they are not repeated in the next attempt.
In this article, I’ll provide a comprehensive analysis of the RBI Grade B 2023 Phase 1 General Awareness previous year questions, highlighting key takeaways to help you prepare for the GA section.
General Awareness PYQs of the RBI Grade B 2023 Phase 1 Exam
The RBI Grade B is an online exam, and RBI does not make the question paper public. However, to help you practice general awareness PYQs from the RBI Grade B 2023 Prelims, my team at EduTap and I have created a memory-based set of 80 general awareness questions from the RBI Grade B previous year paper 2023 Phase 1 exam.
Find the 80 memory-based GA questions below, along with their corresponding answers.
Question 1. Recently a declaration has been adopted that aims to boost industry ties on defense and renewable energy, in the face of growing competition from the other emerging countries. The above-mentioned Atlantic Declaration, was signed between which two countries?
A. United States and United Kingdom
B. Australia & United Kingdom
C. France and United States
D. Australia and United Kingdom
E. Australia and France
Question 2. United States will rejoin an organization in July, four years after it left it in 2019, alleging that it was biased against Israel. The move to rejoin will face a vote by organisation’s member states and is expected to pass easily. Which of the following organisation US is about to re-join?
A. UNICEF
B. WHO
C. UNESCO
D. UNCTAD
E. SCO
Question 3. What is the objective of the “Antardrishti Dashboard” which was launched recently by RBI?
A. It will provide the required insight to assess and monitor the progress of grievance redressal mechanism.
B. It will provide the required insight to assess and monitor the progress of financial inclusion.
C. It will provide the required insight to assess and monitor the progress of reducing NPAs.
D. It will provide the required insight to assess and monitor the progress of strengthening financial system.
E. It will provide the required insight to assess and monitor the progress of digital banking.
Question 4. Recently, Indian-origin Climate Change researcher ______ has been picked for the Spinoza Prize 2023, which is the highest scientific honour in Netherlands and has a prize money of _______.
A. Sheo Kumar, 1.5 million euros
B. Rajkumar Upadhyay, 2.5 million euros
C. Joyeeta Gupta, 1.5 million euros
D. K Rajaraman, 3.5 million euros
E. Navtej Bal, 1.5 million euros
Question 5. Which country has achieved the gender parity according to the latest Global Gender Gap Index?
A. Iceland
B. Finland
C. Denmark
D. Sweden
E. No one
Question 6. Comptroller and Auditor General of India Girish Chandra Murmu has been re-elected as the external auditor of ______ for a four-year term from____.
A. WHO, 2024 to 2027
B. UNICEF, 2023 to 2026
C. UNESCO, 2024 to 2027
D. WTO, 2023 to 2026
E. UNCTAD, 2024 to 2027
Question 7. The tropical cyclones forming over different Ocean basins are named by the concerned regional specialised meteorological centres (RSMCs) and regional Tropical Cyclone Warning Centres (TCWCs). According to the ‘List of North Indian Ocean Tropical Cyclone Names’, what is the name of the next cyclone after cyclone ‘Biparjoy’ and the name has been recommended by which country?
A. Prahar, Bangladesh
B. Akhand, India
C. Tej, India
D. Bhanwar, Nepal
E. Prachand, Sri Lanka
Question 8. Foreign Trade Policy (2023) is a policy document which is based on continuity of time-tested schemes facilitating exports as well as a document which is nimble and responsive to the requirements of trade. Which among the following is not part of the four key pillars of the Foreign Trade Policy 2023 announced recently?
A. Incentive to Remission
B. Export promotion through collaboration – Exporters, States, Districts, Indian Missions
C. Ease of doing business, reduction in transaction cost and e-initiatives
D. Emerging Areas – E-Commerce Developing Districts as Export Hubs and streamlining SCOMET policy
E. E-Governance
Question 9. The Union government, in consultation with the RBI, fixes the inflation target for the central bank every five years. The Upper Tolerance level of Inflation is ____________ and in case of breach of the upper tolerance for ___________ quarters the report has to be submitted by RBI.
A. 4.0%, three consecutive quarters
B. 5.0%, two consecutive quarters
C. 6.0%, two consecutive quarters
D. 6.0%, three consecutive quarters
E. 5.0%, three consecutive quarters
Question 10. As per the survey of professional forecasters (SPF) by RBI, the real gross domestic product (GDP) growth forecast for 2023-24 has been retained at _____ , while it is expected to grow by ____ in 2024-25.
A. 5.7 per cent, 6.1 per cent
B. 5.9 per cent, 6.3 per cent
C. 6.0 per cent, 6.4 per cent
D. 6.1 per cent, 6.4 per cent
E. 6.2 per cent, 6.3 per cent
Question 11. As per Annual Report of RBI, Commercial banks remained the largest holders of government securities [including T-Bills and state government securities (SGSs)] accounting for __________ as at end-March 2023.
A. 27.5%
B. 37.5%
C. 25.5%
D. 31.5%
E. 28.5%
Question 12. Which of the following States are among the top 3 States with highest mangrove cover in India?
1. West Bengal
2. Gujarat
3. Andaman Nicobar
4. Tamil Nadu
A. 1, 2 & 3
B. Only 2 & 3
C. Only 1 & 4
D. Only 3 & 4
E. 2, 3 & 4
Question 13. Group of Twenty (G20) is an intergovernmental forum comprising 19 countries and the European Union. India holds the Presidency of the G20 from December 1, 2022 to November 30, 2023. Which of the following is not one of the guest countries invited in G20 summit under India’s presidency?
A. Bangladesh
B. Phillipines
C. Mauritius
D. Netherlands
E. Nigeria
Question 14. India is NOT a member of which of the following organizations?
A. SCO
B. ADB
C. World Trade Organisation
D. OECD
E. World Bank
Question 15. As per RBI Annual Report 2022-23, India has remained among the fastest growing major economies of the world, contributing more than ___________ to global growth on average during the last five years.
A. 5.5%
B. 7.5%
C. 12%
D. 6.8%
E. 10.5%
Question 16. As per the Financial Stability Report, SCBs’ gross non-performing assets (GNPA) ratio continued its downtrend and fell to a __________ year low in 3.9% in March 2023 and the net non-performing assets (NNPA) ratio declined to __________.
A. 8, 0.5%
B. 10, 1%
C. 13, 1.5%
D. 10, 1.5%
E. 8, 1%
Question 17. Despite prolonged geopolitical tensions and slowing global trade, India’s merchandise exports touched US$ 450.4 billion during 2022- 23, which is 6.7 per cent above the previous year’s record level. Which sector contributed the largest share in the merchandise exports from India?
A. Electronic Goods
B. Petroleum Products
C. Rice
D. Organic and Inorganic Chemicals
E. Iron Ore
Question 18. The core theme of the 2025 Payments Vision document is E-Payments for Everyone ______________.
A. E-Payments for Elder
B. Everywhere, Everytime
C. Everywhere, Everything
D. Everything, Everytime
E. Everyone, Everything
Question 19. Which among the following ASEAN countries are also the members of BIMSTEC?
1. Thailand
2. Singapore
3. Myanmar
4. Indonesia
5. Vietnam
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 4 and 5
E. All of the above
Question 20. There has been great excitement and a rush of positive sentiment among members of the fintech community (digital lenders), regulated lenders, and investors about the recently (June 2023) released Guidelines on Default Loss Guarantee (DLG) in Digital Lending which were issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). The Guidelines on Default Loss Guarantee (DLG) in Digital Lending is not applicable on which of the following entities?
A. Payment Banks
B. Small Finance Banks
C. State Co-operative Banks
D. NBFC
E. Commercial Banks
Question 21. The term of State Legislative Assemblies of which of the following State will not end till Jan 2024?
A. Madhya Pradesh
B. Rajasthan
C. Haryana
D. Chhattisgarh
E. Telangana
Question 22. Which among the following small saving scheme will provide highest return in July-September 2023?
A. Kisan Vikas Patra
B. National Savings Certificate (NSC)
C. Senior citizen savings Scheme
D. Sukanya Samriddhi
E. Monthly Income Scheme
Question 23. HS Prannoy ended a six-year long title drought with a three-game win over China’s Weng Hong Yang in a pulsating men’s singles finals at the Malaysia Masters. This title is known as _________.
A. Super 1000 title
B. Super 500 title
C. Super 300 title
D. Super 200 title
E. Super 100 title
Question 24. For the first time in India, the share price of a company crossed the Rs 1 lakh mark. With this, __________ became the first stock in India to cross the Rs 1 lakh mark per share in intra-day trade after its share jumped 1.07 per cent in early trade recently in June 2023.
A. Honeywell
B. MRF Ltd
C. Page Industries
D. 3M India
E. Shree Cement
Question 25. With classification of UCBs into four tiers, the prudential exposure limits for UCBs to a group of connected borrowers/parties will be how much of their tier-I capital?
A. ₹150 lakh
B. ₹120 lakh
C. ₹60 lakh
D. ₹50 lakh
E. ₹70 lakh
Question 26. As per the recent (June 2023) data of Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), United Arab Emirates (UAE), with which India implemented a comprehensive free trade agreement in May last year, has emerged as the fourth largest investor in India during 2022-23. Which among the following countries are among the top 3 sources of FDI into India?
A. UAE, Mauritius, US
B. Netherlands, Mauritius, US
C. Singapore, Mauritius, US
D. Singapore, Netherlands, US
E. Singapore, Mauritius, Australia
Question 27. India’s overall exports (Merchandise and Services combined) in April 2023 is estimated to be USD 65.02 Billion, exhibiting a positive growth of 2.00 per cent over April 2022. Which one of the following key sectors under merchandise exports exhibited highest positive growth in April 2023 as compared to the same period last year (April 2022)?
A. Oil Meals
B. Electronic Goods
C. Ceramic Products & Glassware
D. Drugs & Pharmaceuticals
E. Cereal Preparations & Miscellaneous Processed Items
Question 28. Which of the following States are among the top 3 destination States for FDI in India?
1. Maharashtra
2. Karnataka
3. Gujarat
4. Delhi
5. Tamil Nadu
A. Only 1
B. Both 2 & 3
C. 1, 3 and 5
D. 2, 4 and 5
E. 1, 2 and 3
Question 29. Dr. Mansukh Mandaviya unveiled the 5th State Food Safety Index (SFSI), which evaluates the performance of states and union territories across six different aspects of food safety. Which one of the following are the top-3 states in the large state category of the State Food Safety Index?
A. Kerala, Punjab and Uttar Pradesh
B. Andhra Pradesh, Kerala and Punjab
C. Kerala, Punjab and Tamil Nadu
D. Haryana, Kerala and Telangana
E. Haryana, Punjab and Tamil Nadu
Question 30. Who has been recently appointed as the chair of B20 India which represents the entire G20 business community?
A. Ajay Bhalla
B. Gautam Adani
C. N. Chandrasekaran
D. Ratan Tata
E. Ravneet Kaur
Question 31. The headquarters of European Central Bank is located in ____and was established in ______.
A. London, 1998
B. Brusells, 2002
C. Paris, 2000
D. Rome, 1998
E. Frankfurt, 1998
Question 32. Which of the following statements is true regarding Call Money, Notice Money and Term Money?
A. Scheduled commercial banks (including Small Finance Banks) cannot set their own limits for borrowing in call money and notice money markets, within the prescribed prudential limits for inter-bank liabilities
B. Scheduled commercial banks (excluding Small Finance Banks) can set their own limits for borrowing in call money and notice money markets, within the prescribed prudential limits for inter-bank liabilities
C. Scheduled commercial banks (excluding Small Finance Banks) can set their own limits for borrowing in call money only but not in notice money markets, within the prescribed prudential limits for inter-bank liabilities
D. Scheduled commercial banks (including Small Finance Banks) can set their own limits for borrowing in call money only but not in notice money markets, within the prescribed prudential limits for inter-bank liabilities
E. None of the above
Question 33. 50 years after the launch of Project Tiger on April 1, 1973, India’s tiger population today ranges from 2,500 to 3,000. When Project Tiger started, we had ___ tiger reserves. In 2023, we have ___.
A. 9, 47
B. 9, 53
C. 9, 48
D. 9, 55
E. 9, 67
Question 34. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding Sovereign Gold Bonds?
A. Investment limit per fiscal year is 4 kg for individuals and Hindu Undivided Family (HUF)
B. Investment limit per fiscal year is 20 Kg for Trusts and similar entities notified by the Government from time to time
C. Bond is available both in demat and paper form
D. Total limit is excluding purchase from secondary market
E. Bond can be used as collateral for loans
Question 35. Which among the following bank has launched corporate customer platform “fyn”?
A. Kotak Mahindra Bank
B. IndusInd Bank
C. HDFC Bank
D. RBL Bank
E. Federal Bank
Question 36. Which of the following is one of the Payment System Operator in India?
A. Clearing Corporation of India
B. National Payments Corporation of India
C. Scheduled Commercial Banks
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Question 37. Recently, 40 years have been completed for the historic win of India in 1983 Cricket World Cup final. India scored 183 runs batting first, what was the score of West Indies?
A. 128
B. 133
C. 110
D. 125
E. 140
Question 38. The Union Minister of Ports, Shipping & Waterways and Ayush, Shri Sarbananda Sonowal flagged off the maiden International Cruise Vessel “_______”, India’s first international cruise vessel, from Chennai to _______.
A. MV Empress, Bangladesh
B. MV Ganga Vilas, Bhutan
C. MV Empress, Sri Lanka
D. MV Ganga Vilas, Sri Lanka
E. MV Emperor, Sri Lanka
Question 39. Which of the following institutes celebrate their foundation day on 1st July?
A. Indian Space Research Organisation
B. Institute of Chartered Accountants of India
C. Defence Research and Development Organisation
D. Border Roads Organisation
E. NITI Aayog
Question 40. Brand Finance evaluates and values over 5,000 brands every year, across all sectors and geographies. Get instant access to the world’s largest brand database, including brand value, brand strength, research and competitive ranking data. According to brand finance India, which among the following is not among the top 5 Indian brands?
A. Tata
B. Infosys
C. HDFC Bank
D. LIC
E. Reliance
Question 41. The National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) was approved by the MHRD and launched by Honourable Minister of Human Resource Development on 29th September 2015.As per the NIRF’s “India Rankings 2023”, which one of the following has been matched incorrectly:
1. Top performing University: IISc Bengaluru
2. Top performing College: ST Stephens
3. Top performing institute in Overall Category: IIT Madras
A. 2 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
E. None of the above
Question 42. El Nino is a cyclical environmental condition that occurs across the Equatorial Pacific Ocean and is triggered by natural interactions between the ocean and atmosphere with the driving factors being the sea surface temperature, rainfall, air pressure, and atmospheric and ocean circulations. It occurs when the surface water in the equatorial Pacific becomes warmer than average and east winds blow weaker than normal. The phenomenon is similar to which of the following climatic anomaly?
A. Indian Ocean Dipole
B. Mavven Oscillation
C. Madden Jullian Oscillation
D. Western Disturbances
E. Monsoon
Question 43. Which of the following is the mascots launched by RBI as a part of its financial Awareness campaign?
A. Ms Money
B. Mr Money
C. Money Kumar
D. Mr Kumar
E. Money Raja
Question 44. Which of the following is the initiative supported by NITI Aayog, aimed to finance 50,000 electric vehicles for MSMEs?
A. ELECTRO
B. EVOLVE
C. EVPURE
D. EVWORLD
E. EVNITI
Question 45. World Bank has scrapped Ease of Doing Business and announced a new replacement annual series which will reflect a more balanced and transparent approach toward evaluating a country’s business and investment climate. What is the name of the new replacement annual series?
A. Ease Business
B. Business PRO
C. Easy Business
D. Business Ready
E. Business PORT
Question 46. Food and Consumer Affairs Minister Piyush Goyal has announced that India will achieve its target of ____ ethanol blending with petrol by ______ instead of 2030. He also maintained that the maize crop will play an important role in implementation of the programme.
A. 20%, 2024
B. 25%, 2025
C. 20%, 2025
D. 30%, 2030
E. 25%, 2023
Question 47. Recently, Union Minister of Road Transport and Highway has informed about the ambitious India-Myanmar-Thailand Trilateral Highway which connects Kolkata to Bangkok. It belongs to which of which of the following organization?
A. BIMSTEC
B. ASEAN
C. SCO
D. G-7
E. G20
Question 48. Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched three flagship schemes for urban revamp, including smart cities and housing for all on 25th June 2015, ensuring better quality of life for 40% of the country’s population that either live in urban areas or dependent on them for livelihood. Which one of the following are the 3-schemes launched?
1. Smart Cities Mission
2. Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT)
3. Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana – Urban (PMAY-U)
A. Only 1
B. Both 2 & 3
C. Only 3
D. Both 1 & 2
E. All 1, 2 and 3
Question 49. According to the Union Budget 2023, Government has decided to continue the 50-year interest free loan to state governments for one more year to spur ________ investment and, with a significantly enhanced outlay of Rs 1.3 lakh crore, from ___________.
A. Capital, 2021-22
B. Capital, 2025-26
C. Capital, 2024-25
D. Capital, 2022-23
E. Capital, 2023-24
Question 50. Which one of the following statements are correct with respect to the Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture (MIDH) scheme?
1. It is Central Sector Scheme launched in 2015.
2. It provides financial assistance @35% of the project cost in general areas for setting up post harvest management infrastructure.
3. It provides technical advice and administrative support to state governments/state horticulture missions for the saffron mission.
A. Only 1
B. Both 2 & 3
C. Only 2
D. Both 1 & 3
E. All 1, 2 & 3
Question 51. Progress has been sluggish in six sectors under Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) schemes. A detailed analysis is being conducted by relevant ministries. Which among the following is not under non-performing sector of the scheme?
A. Information technology (IT) hardware
B. White Goods
C. ACC Battery
D. Textile
E. Speciality Steel
Question 52. Which one of the following states was among the top-3 states in terms of highest GST revenues in June 2023?
1. Haryana
2. Karnataka
3. Gujarat
4. Uttar Pradesh
5. Maharashtra
A. Only 2, 3 and 5
B. Only 1, 3 & 4
C. Only 1, 2 & 5
D. Only 3, 4 & 5
E. Only 2, 3 & 4
Question 53. e-way bill is a document required to be carried by a person in charge of the conveyance carrying any consignment of goods of value exceeding ______ as mandated by the Government in terms of section 68 of the Goods and Services Tax Act read with rule 138 of the rules framed thereunder.
A. Rs 50,000
B. Rs 40,000
C. Rs 65,000
D. Rs 1,00,000
E. Rs 75,000
Question 54. Name the country that conferred its highest civilian honour to President Droupadi Murmu- The Grand Order of the Chain of Yellow Star, the first Indian to receive this award.
A. Sudan
B. South Africa
C. Uganda
D. Suriname
E. Serbia
Question 55. The Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi, approved the constitution and empowerment of an Inter Ministerial Committee (IMC) for facilitation of the “World’s Largest Grain Storage Plan in Cooperative Sector” by convergence of various schemes of ministries. Which ministry does not belong to that group?
A. Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
B. Ministry of Cooperation
C. Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution
D. Ministry of Food Processing Industries
E. None of the above
Question 56. The Reserve Bank releases a quarterly house price index (HPI) based on transaction-level data received from housing registration authorities in ten major cities. The cities are:
1. Bengaluru
2. Delhi
3. Jaipur
4. Kanpur
5. Kolkata
6. Mumbai
Remaining cities are :
A. Chandigarh, Kochi, Lucknow, Ahmedabad
B. Chennai, Shimla, Lucknow, Ahmedabad
C. Chennai, Kochi, Lucknow, Agra
D. Chennai, Surat, Lucknow, Ahmedabad
E. Chennai, Kochi, Lucknow, Ahmedabad
Question 57. Which one of the following is/are the dimensions across which the states and districts have been assessed under the Social Progress Index (SPI) for States and Districts made by the Institute for Competitiveness and Social Progress Imperative?
1. Basic Human Needs
2. Innovation
3. Foundations of Wellbeing
4. Opportunity
5. Foundations of Healthy life
A. Only 1, 3 and 4
B. Only 1, 2 and 3
C. Only 2, 3 and 4
D. Only 1 and 2
E. Only 2 and 3
Question 58. NASA’s MAVEN mission has released some new, mind-blowing images captivating array of ultraviolet views of the red planet. What does “V” stands for in MAVEN Mission?
A. Velocity
B. Vacuum
C. Volatile
D. Valence
E. Vector
Question 59. The Basic Statistical Returns (BSR) Code is a seven-digit code that is provided to the registered banks by the RBI. The first three digits in the code identify the bank, while the following four digits identify the bank branch. India’s Basic Statistical Returns (BSR) system recently completed _________ since its inception.
A. 10 years
B. 20 years
C. 50 years
D. 25 years
E. 75 years
Question 60. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has fixed the minimum Net Owned Fund (NOF) size for housing finance companies at _________. The housing finance companies (HFCs) holding a Certificate of Registration (CoR) and having an NOF of less than ______ will be required to achieve NOF of Rs 15 crore by March 31, 2022 and ________ by March 31, 2023.
A. Rs 5 crore
B. Rs 15 crore
C. Rs 25 crore
D. Rs 20 crore
E. Rs 35 crore
Question 61. As per Foreign Trade Policy 2023, towns that produces goods worth at least ______ can be recognized as towns of export excellence, based on their growth potential for exports.
A. Rs 850 Crore
B. Rs 750 Crore
C. Rs 650 Crore
D. Rs 550 Crore
E. Rs 450 Crore
Question 62. NTPC Limited, India’s largest power generation company, has climbed 52 positions to secure the 433rd rank in Forbes’ “The Global 2000” List for 2023. Which among the following is/are not the parameters taken into account for determining Forbes 2000 ranking of the top public companies in the world?
A. Goodwill
B. Sales
C. Profits
D. Assets
E. Market value
Question 63. Recently (June 2023), Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR), New Delhi has signed a MoU with _______ Kisan to combine strengths and create synergy between the two organizations for guiding the farmers on scientific cultivation of different crops for optimum yield and income.
A. Snapdeal
B. Meesho
C. Amazon
D. Flipkart
E. CRED
Question 64. Recently, Sebi has proposed to tweak the definition of unpublished price sensitive information (UPSI). It proposed changing the definition of UPSI as it currently stands and bringing Regulation 30 of LODR, according to which the listed firms must notify stock exchanges after the occurrence of any events or facts that are material. Which of the following occurrences are included?
1. Any modification to securities
2. Revision to ratings
3. Initiation of CSR activities
4. Change in director
5. Fraud or default by promoters or key managerial people
A. Both 2 & 3
B. 1, 3, 4 and 5
C. Both 1 & 5
D. 3, 4 and 5
E. 1,2,4 and 5
Question 65. As per data from the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation released under “Twenty Point Programme”, of the 14 parameters tracked quarterly, the Indian Government achieved a more than ____ target completion (“very good”) in six parameters.
A. 80%
B. 90%
C. 75%
D. 60%
E. 40%
Question 66. Household financial savings refer to currency, bank deposits, debt securities, mutual funds, pension funds, insurance, and investments in small savings schemes. The total of these savings is referred to as gross household financial savings. Once financial liabilities, including loans from banks, non-banking financial companies (NBFCs), and housing finance companies, are subtracted from gross savings, what remains is referred to as net household financial savings. As per the RBI Annual Report 2022-23, which one of the following Financial Saving of Household Sector has the highest share in 2021-22?
A. Deposits
B. Currency
C. Shares and Debentures
D. Insurance Funds
E. Provident and Pension Funds
Question 67. TRAI in its endeavor to curb menace of spams through Unsolicited Commercial Communication (UCC) has taken various measures in recent past. Recently (June 2023), TRAI has now issued a Direction to all the Access Providers to develop and deploy the DCA facility for creating a unified platform and process to register customers consent digitally across all service providers and Principal Entities. What does “DCA” stands for?
A. Digital Consent Acquisition
B. Data Consent Acquisition
C. Digital Content Acquisition
D. Data Content Acquisition
E. Digital Communication Acquisition
Question 68. Taking forward digitization efforts announced in the Union Budget 2022-23, the Reserve Bank introduced its Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC) in phases during the year, with the launch of pilots for Digital Rupee (e`) in ____________.
A. Wholesale segments only on December 1, 2022
B. Retail segments only November 1, 2022.
C. Wholesale and retail segments on December 1, 2022, and November 1, 2022 respectively.
D. Wholesale and retail segments on January 1, 2022, and December 1, 2022 respectively.
E. Wholesale and retail segments on November 1, 2022, and December 1, 2022 respectively.
Question 69. As per the recent advance estimates of production of major crops for agricultural year 2022-23 released by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, the production of which one of the following crops did not increase from the previous year?
A. Jawar
B. Rice
C. Wheat
D. Bajra
E. Maize
Question 70. Which of the following Scheduled Commercial Banks have recorded the highest number of new branch additions in the financial year ended on 31st March 2023?
A. Yes Bank
B. Axis Bank
C. Bank of Baroda
D. HDFC Bank
E. ICICI Bank
Question 71. Under SEBI (Mutual Funds) Regulations, 1996, Mutual Funds are permitted to charge certain operating expenses for managing a mutual fund scheme. All such costs for running and managing a mutual fund scheme are collectively referred to as ‘Total Expense Ratio’ (TER). TER is calculated as a percentage of the Scheme’s average _________.
A. Net Asset Value (NAV)
B. Absolute Returns
C. Simple Annualised Return
D. Total Investments
E. Redemption Amount
Question 72. Which among the following metal was not used to make the commemorative ’75 Rupee Coin’ which was launched during the inauguration of new parliament?
A. Silver
B. Copper
C. Nickel
D. Gold
E. Zinc
Question 73. As per IRDAI, which among the following is a criteria used to identify the Domestic ‘Systemically Important Insurers?
A. Number of Branches
B. Market Share
C. Domestic and global interconnectedness
D. Public Sector
E. All of the above
Question 74. Recently, the Prime Minister of India attended the 3rd summit of 3rd Summit of the Forum for India-Pacific Islands Cooperation (FIPIC) held at which of the following locations?
A. Fiji
B. Papua New Guinea
C. Samoa
D. Solomon Islands
E. Niue
Question 75. Recently, Indian security forces have been trained in _________ “Krav Maga” to counter China’s People Liberation Army (PLA) during patrolling along the Line of Actual Control (LAC).
A. Russia
B. Caribbean Island
C. Israel
D. France
E. USA
Question 76. The Centre has revised the threshold for GST e-invoicing, and has announced that it will be mandatory for all businesses with annual turnover of over _____to move to e-invoicing for business to business transaction under goods and services tax (GST) from _____.
A. Rs 2 crore, Rs 10 Crore
B. Rs 3.5 crore, Rs 10 Crore
C. Rs 5 crore, Rs 10 Crore
D. Rs 10 crore, Rs 20 Crore
E. Rs 15 crore, Rs 20 Crore
Question 77. According to the Union Budget 2023-24, the highest surcharge rate in personal income tax has been reduced from 37% to _____ in the new tax regime for income above ₹2 crore.
A. 15%
B. 36%
C. 17%
D. 25%
E. 30%
Question 78. Which among the following player has courted controversy when he wrote “Kosovo is the heart of Serbia, depicting the ethnic tensions flared in the Balkan nation?
A. Casper Ruud
B. Carlos Alcaraz
C. Novak Djokovic
D. Rafael Nadal
E. Andrey Rublev
Question 79. Government of India through Indian Strategic Petroleum Reserve Ltd. (ISPRL) under Phase–1 has setup Strategic Petroleum Reserves (SPR) at three locations namely Vishakhapatnam, Mangalore and ________.
A. Varanasi
B. Padur
C. Raipur
D. Kolkata
E. Ranchi
Question 80. Which one of the following statements are correct regarding the PM KUSUM Scheme?
1. It seeks to increase the farmers’ income
2. The scheme comprises of 3-components.
3. It works towards decreasing environmental pollution.
A. Only 1
B. Both 2 & 3
C. Only 3
D. Both 1 & 2
E. All 1, 2 and 3
RBI Grade B GA 2023 PYQ Answer Key
Below is the answer key for the GA questions asked in the RBI Grade B 2023 exam:
RBI Grade B General Awareness 2023 PYQ Answer Key
| RBI Grade B GA 2023 PYQ Answer Key | |||||||
| Question | Answer | Question | Answer | Question | Answer | Question | Answer |
| 1 | A | 21 | C | 41 | A | 61 | B |
| 2 | C | 22 | C | 42 | A | 62 | A |
| 3 | B | 23 | B | 43 | C | 63 | C |
| 4 | C | 24 | B | 44 | B | 64 | E |
| 5 | E | 25 | C | 45 | D | 65 | B |
| 6 | A | 26 | C | 46 | C | 66 | A |
| 7 | C | 27 | A | 47 | A | 67 | A |
| 8 | E | 28 | E | 48 | E | 68 | E |
| 9 | D | 29 | C | 49 | E | 69 | A |
| 10 | C | 30 | C | 50 | B | 70 | D |
| 11 | B | 31 | E | 51 | A | 71 | A |
| 12 | A | 32 | B | 52 | A | 72 | D |
| 13 | B | 33 | B | 53 | A | 73 | E |
| 14 | D | 34 | D | 54 | D | 74 | B |
| 15 | C | 35 | A | 55 | B | 75 | C |
| 16 | B | 36 | D | 56 | E | 76 | C |
| 17 | B | 37 | E | 57 | A | 77 | D |
| 18 | B | 38 | C | 58 | C | 78 | C |
| 19 | C | 39 | B | 59 | C | 79 | B |
| 20 | A | 40 | C | 60 | C | 80 | E |
Now that you have the RBI Grade B 2023 General Awareness PYQs with the answer key, you can start practicing them. Additionally, let’s analyze them to get valuable insights for the GA section of the upcoming RBI Grade B exam.
What Can You Learn From the RBI Grade B 2023 GA PYQs?
RBI Grade B 2023 GA PYQs analysis offers invaluable insights that are essential for your preparation, such as:
Number of Questions Asked from Each GA Topic in the RBI Grade B 2023 Exam
Analyzing the PYQs helps you understand the weightage of different GA topics. Below are the number of questions asked from each GA topic in the RBI Grade B 2023 exam:
- ESI Current Affairs: 16
- Reports: 12
- RBI Notifications: 11
- Government Schemes: 8
- Static GK: 7
- Finance Current Affairs: 5
- Sports: 3
- Banking Current Affairs: 3
- ARD Current Affairs: 2
- Government Initiatives: 2
- Science and Technology: 2
- First in News: 2
- MOUs and Agreements: 1
- Awards and Honors: 1
- Defence: 1
- Environment: 1
- Appointments: 1
- Miscellaneous: 1
- Days in News: 1

Difficulty Level of GA in RBI Grade B 2023
Attempting the RBI Grade B 2023 GA PYQs provides crucial insight into the exam’s difficulty level, allowing you to make necessary changes to your preparation strategy.
Here’s the distribution of questions by difficulty level in the RBI Grade B GA 2023 PYQ:
- Total Questions: 80
- Easy: 11
- Moderate: 47
- Difficult: 22
The overall difficulty level of the RBI Grade B 2023 GA section was moderate.

Important GA Topics for the RBI Grade B Exam
To identify high-weighting areas, it’s crucial to understand the topic-wise distribution of questions in the RBI Grade B 2023 GA section. And based on the 2023 PYQs, below, I have mentioned the important topics that you should prioritize in your preparation for the upcoming RBI Grade B exam:
- Flagship Schemes related to Finance, Women Empowerment, Human Development, Infrastructure, and Social Justice.
- Topics like First in News, Government Initiatives, Science and Technology, Sports, etc., play an important role.
- RBI Notification plays an important role, and students should give due importance to the RBI Notification.
- The majority of questions in the RBI Notifications were asked from the RBI Annual Report.
- With respect to finance current affairs, the paper requires a balance of a thorough understanding of current knowledge with static topics of the news to crack answers.
- ESI Current Affairs related to Globalisation, Social Sector – Education, Regional Economic Cooperation, Sustainable Development and Environmental Issues, and Social Justice, requires a balance of thorough understanding of current knowledge with static topics of the news to crack answers.
- In the Reports, questions were asked from reports released by National/International Organizations related to syllabus like Social Justice, Sustainable Development, and Environmental Issues, etc.
How Important Are GA PYQ for the RBI Grade B Preparation?
Practicing General Awareness PYQs is a smart strategy for the next RBI Grade B exam, offering several key advantages:
- Self-Assessment
- Solving GA PYQs provides you with a clear picture of your current preparation level.
- It helps you pinpoint any knowledge gaps that you need to work on, allowing you to focus more on areas needing improvement.
- Improving Time Management
- RBI Grade B Phase 1 exam has sectional timing, and you’ll get 25 minutes to solve 80 GA questions, hence, time management plays a crucial role here.
- Timing yourself while solving past GA questions shows you how much time to spend on each one, so you don’t run out of time in the exam.
- Solving GA PYQs under timed conditions can improve your speed and accuracy in reading, understanding, and answering questions.
- Confidence Building
- Practicing PYQs and witnessing your progress boosts your confidence.
- Each successful attempt at GA PYQ, each identified weakness addressed, and each improvement in time management creates a positive reinforcement cycle.
Bonus Points:
- Topics absent in 2023 (Present in 2022): Places in News, Persons in News, and Books and Authors.
- Topics present in 2023 (Absent in 2022): MOUs and Agreements, Appointments, First in News, Awards and Honors, and Environment.
*More number of questions were asked from RBI Notifications, Reports, and ESI current affairs in 2023 as compared to 2022. In contrast, the weightage of Static GK, Finance Current Affairs, and Government Initiatives saw a decrease compared to the 2022 examination.

What Next?
Now that you have an understanding of the RBI Grade B 2023 GA PYQs and you are familiar with the topic-wise question distribution, difficulty level, and important topics, the next essential step is to practice and thoroughly analyze GA PYQs from previous years.
Afterward, extend your preparation to year-wise PYQs of other RBI Grade B Phase 1 subjects for complete coverage. Remember, consistent practice, especially with recent papers, is key to your success in the RBI Grade B exam.
Here are the subject-wise & year-wise PYQs of the RBI Grade B Phase 1 exam:
- RBI Grade B 2024 Exam PYQ
- RBI Grade B 2023 Exam PYQs