RBI Grade B Reasoning 2023 Previous Year Questions | Answer Key

Decoding the RBI Grade B previous year questions of the 2023 Reasoning section is crucial for all aspirants, especially those who are unsure where to begin their preparation.

• This analysis helps you understand which reasoning topics to prioritize based on the question distribution and also reveals their difficulty level. 
• Moreover, if you have previously attempted the 2023 exam, you can identify your knowledge gaps by recognizing your past mistakes, enabling you to avoid repeating them.

In this article, I’ll provide a detailed analysis of the RBI Grade B Reasoning section by providing insights into the previous year’s questions from 2023.

Reasoning PYQs of the RBI Grade B 2023 Phase 1 Exam

You need to understand that RBI conducts its Grade B examinations online and does not release the official question papers. To address this, my team at EduTap and I, with the help of aspirants who have attempted the RBI Grade B 2023 exam, have compiled a memory-based list of 60 reasoning ability questions.

Below, you’ll find the memory-based reasoning questions asked in the RBI Grade B previous year paper 2023 Phase 1 exam, along with their corresponding answers, for your practice.

Directions (Q1- Q2): In each of the questions below are given some statements followed by five conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically does not follow from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

Question 1. Only a few bananas are oranges. No banana is mango. No grapes are oranges.

Conclusions:

A. Some grapes can be mangoes

B. All bananas can be oranges

C. Some mangoes are not bananas

D. Some grapes are bananas is a possibility

E. Some oranges can be mangoes

Question 2. Some actors are dancers. Only a few dancers are singers. No singer is politician

Conclusions:

A. Some politician being actors is a possibility

B. Some dancers are not singers

C. Some dancers are not politicians is not a possibility

D. Some actors are singers

E. Some actors are singers is a possibility

Directions (Q3-Q7): Answer the questions based on the information given below:

Nine friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I were born on 18th of different months in the same year such that no one was born in March, June and November. These persons belong to different places among Solapur, Kanpur, Jaipur, Raipur, Jodhpur, Sultanpur, Udaipur, Nagpur and Firozpur.

B was born in a month with 31 days and three months before the person from Raipur. Three persons were born between B and D, who is not the youngest. The person from Nagpur was born immediately after the one from Kanpur. The person from Kanpur was not born in a month with only 30 days. G is not from Sultanpur.

There is a gap of only one month between the birth of G and the one from Solapur. The person from Jaipur is five months elder than G. F was born two months after D. Only one person was born between F and E, who is from Solapur. H, who is from Udaipur, was born three months after I, who is not the eldest. A is younger than C. Person from Jodhpur was born before the one from Sultanpur.

Question 3. A is how many months older than H?

A. Five

B. Four

C. Six

D. Seven

E. Eight

Question 4. Who among the following persons were born between C and the one from Udaipur?

I. Person from Jaipur

II. D

III. B

A. Both II and III

B. All I, II and III

C. Both I and II

D. Both I and III

E. Only II

Question 5. The eldest person belongs to which place?

A. Raipur

B. Jodhpur

C. Sultanpur

D. Kanpur

E. Firozpur

Question  6. ___ persons were born between the person who is born in October and the one from _____.

A. Five, Nagpur

B. Four, Jaipur

C. Three, Raipur

D. Six, Solapur

E. None of these

Question 7. 3rd eldest person is ____ months older than _____.

A. Three, D

B. Five, H

C. Seven, G

D. Four, F

E. Six, B

Directions (Q8-Q9): Study the following information to answer the given questions.

@ F 5 2 M $ 7 K T R 3 C + 8 B ! 9 D Q * G 6 W N

STEP 1 – Those numbers which are immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by an alphabet are written at the right end in descending order.

STEP 2 – After completing step 1, the alphabet which is immediately followed by a symbol are written between 7th and 6th element from right end in alphabetical order from left to right.

Question 8. Which of the following element is 4th to the right of the element which is 11th from the right end in step 1?

A. *

B. Q

C. G

D. B

E. 9

Question 9. How many alphabets are immediately followed or preceded by symbol in step 2?

A. Four

B. Two

C. Five

D. None

E. Three

Directions (Q10-Q14): Answer the questions based on the information given below:

Nine boxes A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I are kept one above the other. Each box contains different items among Clothes, Bottles, Books, Watches, Combs, Pens, Mobiles, Shoes & Pencils. Number of items in these boxes is different among 7, 12, 14, 18, 21, 23, 24, 30 and 27. The bottommost box is numbered 1 and the topmost box is numbered 9.

Mobiles are kept in box 4. H is three boxes above the box with 24 items. G has 14 items and is one of the four boxes above H. Third box from the top contains 2nd highest number of items. There are three boxes between G and the box with 18 items. Number of bottles is six more than number of clothes. D is immediately below the box which contains clothes and neither of these boxes contains more than 23 items. There are three boxes between the box, which contains bottles and E, which contains books.

Shoes are three boxes above B. A is immediately above F. Box, which contains Pens, is immediately above I. C is three boxes above the box, which contains the lowest number of items. Box with 23 items is immediately below the box, which contains watches. Number of pencils is less than number of combs. Number of Books is not less than number of shoes.

Question 10. C is how many boxes above the box which contains 21 items?

A. Four

B. Five

C. Two

D. Six

E. Three

Question 11. What is the sum of number of combs and pencils?

A. 37

B. 35

C. 41

D. 30

E. 28

Question 12. Which among the following box is not between the box containing the lowest and highest number of items?

I. D

II. A

III. Box containing 14 items.

A. Both I and II

B. Only I

C. Both II and III

D. Only III

E. Only II

Question 13. What is the difference between the number of items in the topmost box and the number of watches?

A. 10

B. 14

C. 16

D. 12

E. 18

Question 14. Which among the following boxes are kept between the box with 21 items and box containing Pens?

A. B

B. C

C. D

D. E

E. H

Directions (Q15-Q19): Answer the questions based on the information given below.

Fourteen persons are sitting in two parallel rows containing seven persons in each row in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. Initially, in row 1, P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are seated and all of them are facing towards the east and in row 2, A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seated and all of them are facing towards the west. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each person sitting in row 1, is facing the persons sitting in row 2 and vice versa. They play a game of throwing a dice. They interchange their initial position according to the game rules which are as follows:

I. On throwing the dice, if odd number comes, then the person sitting 2nd to the left of thrower exchanges his seat with the person sitting opposite to the one, who sits immediate right of thrower.

II. On throwing the dice, if even number comes, then the person sitting immediate right of the thrower exchanges his seat with one, who sits opposite to the thrower.

Before Movement:

1. T sits fourth to the left of P. Either T or P sits at an extreme end of the row.
2. The one who faces P sits second to the left of F.
3. S sits exactly in the middle of the row. C and D are immediate neighbors of each other.
4. Number of persons sitting to the left of F is twice the number of persons sitting to the right of F.
5. The one, who faces P sits to the immediate left of G and that person is neither C nor D.
6. Number of persons sit between P and R is same as the number of persons sit between T and S.
7. T neither faces C nor D. No one sits between S and V.
8. At least two persons sit between G and E. R does not face B.
9. At most one person sit between S and Q.
10. U faces neither E nor C.
11. A throw the dice and gets 4 after that F throws the dice and gets 3 and finally, V throws the dice and gets 1.

Question 15. Who sits opposite to R after the movement?

A. D

B. A

C. G

D. F

E. C

Question 16. Who sits 2nd to the right of G before the movement?

A. A

B. C

C. F

D. B

E. D

Question 17. What is the position of T with respect to V after the movement?

A. facing the one, who sits 2ndto the right of V

B. 2nd to the right of V

C. 2nd to the left of V

D. facing the one, who sits immediate right of V

E. immediate left

Question 18. How many persons sit between A and F before the movement?

A. One

B. Two

C. Three

D. More than three

E. None

Question 19. Which of the following statement is true about B?

A. B sits immediate right of T after the movement

B. B sits 4thto the left of Q after the movement

C. B sits 4thto the right of A before the movement

D. B sits opposite to V before the movement

E. None

Directions (Q20-Q21): In the following question, two conclusions have been given followed by five sets of possible statements. You have to take the given conclusions to be true even if they seem to be at variance with the commonly known facts and then decide for the given conclusions logically follow from which of the given set of statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Question 20. Conclusions:

1. Some gold are not silver.
2. Some gold are fabric.

Statements:

A. All silver are fabric. No fabric is gold. Some gold are metal.

B. Some silver are fabric. Some fabrics are gold. All gold are metal.

C. No silver is fabric. All fabric are gold. Some gold are metal.

D. All silver are fabric. Some fabric are metal. Some gold are metal.

E. All fabric are silver. All silver are gold. All gold are metal.

Question 21. Conclusions:

1. Some hospitals are buildings is a possibility.
2. Some hostels are not houses.

Statements:

A. All buildings are schools. All schools are hostels. No school is house. No hospital is hostel.

B. Some buildings are schools. All Schools are hostels. No hospital is house. Some schools are houses.

C. All buildings are schools. All schools are hostels. No school is house. All hospitals are hostels.

D. Some buildings are schools. No school is hostel. No hostel is hospital. Some hospitals are houses.

E. None of these.

Question 22. Direction: In which of the following expressions V > Z, K < Y is definitely true?

A. X => W > K => Z < Y <= U < V

B. W <= T < V > G => I => Y > Z < K

C. T => C < V => A = Q => Z > Y > D > K

D. D => E = G > V = F > Z < K < Q <= Y

E. A => I => H = L < Z > K > V < J < Y

Question 23. Direction: In which of the following expression does the expression M => R is definitely true

A. X < R => T => P < N > B => M > U

B. N > M > L = C => A = D > S = R

C. L <= B > M > X => U <= A = O < R

D. T > M = F => G = U => O <= R = S

E. A > R <= B = L = P <= S = M < G

Question 24. The question given below consists of two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the statements and give an answer.

Seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table having eight seats such that one of the seats is vacant. The vacant seat is to the immediate left of A’s seat. All are facing towards the centre. How many people sit between G and F, when counted from the right of F?

Statement I: F sits second to the right of A and to the immediate left of D. One person sits between D and G. B sits opposite to G. C and D are not sitting adjacent to each other.

Statement II: D sits third to right of A. B sits on the third seat to the left of A. One person sits between E and F but neither E nor F sits adjacent to A. E and F are not adjacent to vacant seat.

A. The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question

B. The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question

C. The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question

D. The data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question

E. The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question

Question 25. The question given below can be answered using sentence given in only one of the options. Find out the option which can be used to answer the question.

Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a square table such that four persons are sitting in the corner of the table and four are sitting in the middle of the table. Also, the one, who sits at the corner of the table faces away from the center and the one, who sits in the middle of the table faces towards the table.

Who sits second to the right of C?

A. Only two persons sit between C and B when counted from the right of B. A is an immediate neighbor of C and faces towards the center. E sits second to the right of A. B is second to the right of E.

B. C is an immediate neighbor of A. Person, who is immediate left of C, is sitting opposite to G. E and F are immediate neighbors of each other. F is sitting at the corner of the table.

C. A sits second to the right of E, who sits in the middle of the table. C is an immediate neighbor of A. D sits second to the left of C. H is an immediate neighbor of D. G sits one of the corners. B sits second to the right of A

D. Only two persons sit between H and G, when counted from the left of H, who is an immediate neighbor of D, who sits second to the left of C, who sits immediate right of E, who sits in the middle of the table.

E. None of the above

Question 26. The question given below consists of two statements I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the statements and give answer.

Six persons, Anu, Bill, Chand, Dia, Ema and Faiz, sit along the corners of a regular hexagonal table and face towards the centre of the table. Who among the following sits immediate left of Faiz?

Statement I: Bill sits second to the right of Anu. Chand sits adjacent to Bill. Dia sits second to the right of Chand. Ema does not sit adjacent to Anu.

Statement II: Ema sits adjacent to Dia. Chand sits adjacent to Bill. Dia sits second to the right of Chand. Faiz sits adjacent to Bill. Ana does not sit adjacent to Chand.

A. Data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

B. Data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

C. Data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

D. Data given in both the statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

E. Data in statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Question 27. The question given below consists of two statements I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the statements and give answer.

Seven points, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are drawn on a rectangular piece of paper. What is the direction of point W with respect to point U?

Statement I: Y is 3cm to the west of T. V is 6cm to the east of Y. U is 3cm to the south of T. W is 9cm to the east of Z. X is 6cm to the west of W. V is 5cm to the south of X.

Statement II: Z is 6cm to the north of U. X is 3cm east of Z. V is 5cm south of X. Y is 6cm west of V. T is the midpoint of Y and V. W, which is in east of X, is 13cm to the northeast of Y.

A. Data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

B. Data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

C. Data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

D. Data given in both the statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

E. Data in statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Directions (Q28-Q31): Answer the questions based on the information given below.

P, Q, R are three adjacent buildings. P is to the west of Q. Q is to the west of R. Each building has different number of floors with the lowest floor numbered as 1, floor above it numbered 2 and so on. The height of floors in each building is the same i.e. the same numbered floors are at equal height from the ground. Only few of the floors of these buildings are taken and rest are vacant. None of the buildings had more than 10 floors.

• D’s floor number was twice as that of J’s floor number.
• J lived in building Q. Q had prime numbered floors and J lived on the floor that was 3rd from the top
• Not more than 3 flats were taken in building P
• F was exactly to the east of B
• B lived exactly above C but not in the same building
• C and F did not live in the same building
• A’s floor number was thrice as that of C’s floor number.
• A was exactly to the west of H
• H was not in building R
• C and G did not live in the same building
• G lived immediately below E
• B and E lived on consecutive floors of the same building
• I was exactly to the east of C
• I and E did not live in the same building
• B and G did not have the same floor number
• The number of floors in I’s building was 3 less than that in building Q

1. Only one person lives on each floor
2. Exactly to the east or west does not mean immediate east or west, but on the same floor.
3. Immediately above or below implies that the person is not in the same building.

Question 28. How many floors were there in building P?

A. 6

B. 8

C. 5

D. 10

E. 9

Question 29. What was the floor number of F?

A. 4

B. 2

C. 3

D. 5

E. 6

Question 30. Four of the following bears a similar relation and hence form a group, who among the following is not a part of that group?

A. B

B. H

C. E

D. A

E. J

Question 31.  What was the difference between the number of floors in building Q and P?

A. 5

B. 2

C. 1

D. 4

E. 3

Question 32. What was the difference between the floor numbers of H and F?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

Direction (Q33-Q37): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

A word arrangement machine given an input line of words rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.

Input: random optimistic thrifty afraid predictable extravagant pompous humble brave pessimistic

Step 1: afraid random optimistic thrifty predictable extravagant pompous humble pessimistic brave.

Step 2: extravagant afraid random optimistic predictable pompous humble pessimistic brave thrifty.

Step 3: humble extravagant afraid random optimistic predictable pessimistic brave thrifty pompous.

Step 4: optimistic humble extravagant afraid random predictable brave thrifty pompous pessimistic.

Step 5: predictable optimistic humble extravagant afraid brave thrifty pompous pessimistic random.

Step 5 is the last step of the above input.

Input: jeopradize entrust safeguard withdraw anxiety lengthen secular abridge spiritual ease.

Question 33. What will be the fourth step of the above input?

A. jeopradize entrust abridge anxiety secular spiritual lengthen ease withdraw safeguard. 

B. jeopradize entrust anxiety abridge secular spiritual lengthen brave withdraw safeguard.

C. jeopradize entrust anxiety abridge secular lengthen spiritual ease withdraw safeguard.

D. jeopradize entrust anxiety abridge secular spiritual lengthen ease withdraw safeguard.

E. jeopradize entrust anxiety afraid secular spiritual lengthen withdraw ease safeguard.

Question 34. In step 5th of the rearrangement, if ‘anxiety’ is related to ‘entrust’ and ‘abridge ‘ in a certain way. Which of the following would ‘withdraw’ be related to, following the same pattern?

A. Lengthen and ease

B. Ease and entrust

C. Ease and safeguard

D. Lengthen and safeguard

E. None of these

Question 35. Which of the following steps will be the last but one of the above input?

A. IV

B. V

C. II

D. III

E. None of these

Question 36. Which of the following word is 4th to left of withdraw in step2

A. Ease

B. Jeopradize

C. Anxiety

D. Entrust

E. Abridge

Question 37. What is the position of secular from right end in last but one step?

A. Fifth

B. Seventh

C. Fourth

D. Sixth

E. Third

Directions (Q38-Q42): Answer the questions based on the information given below:

There are 3 horizontally parallel rows, row 1, row 2 and row 3. Row 1 is to the north of row 2 and row 2 is to the north of row 3. There are five persons sitting in each row and L is one of the persons among them. In row 1, first three persons sitting from left to right are facing north and rest are facing south. In row 3, first three persons sitting from left to right are facing north and rest are facing south. In row 2, first two persons sitting from left to right are facing north and rest are facing south. Last two persons from left end of row 1 face the first two persons from the left end of row 2. Last three persons from left end of row 2 face first three persons from left end of row 3.

F, who is sitting 2nd to the right of Q, is sitting opposite to A. Three persons are sitting between A and M. F is facing south. G is sitting 2nd to the right of C and both of them are facing the north. E is sitting in the left of G. One person is sitting between E and N. B is sitting to the immediate left of D, who is sitting opposite to O, who is not sitting adjacent to A. S and P are sitting opposite to each other. Neither S nor P is sitting in row 1. R is not sitting adjacent to M.

Question 38. Find the odd one out?

A. C

B. O

C. N

D. F

E. Q

Question 39. How many persons are sitting in the left of S?

A. 3

B. 1

C. 4

D. 2

E. None of these

Question 40. How many persons are sitting between Q and D?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 1

D. 4

E. None of these

Question 41.  _________ is sitting opposite to B.

A. D

B. N

C. F

D. Q

E. None of these

Question 42. ______ is sitting in the middle of row 3.

A. D

B. G

C. R

D. Either (1) or (2)

E. None of these

Question 43. In the question given below, a passage/statement is given followed by three statements which may or may not strengthen/weaken the assertion made in the passage. Answer the questions as per the individual direction given.

It’s highly probable that 50 years from now, it is likely that the 2D internet we now all use will seem laughably archaic. Not only will the internet likely exist behind a screen, but it is probable that we will interact with it differently. We’ll manipulate objects using augmented reality (AR), explore virtual-reality (VR) worlds, and meld the real and the digital in ways we can currently not imagine.

Which of the following, if true, would strengthen the argument made in the above passage?

1. Truly immersive computing and augmented reality, at scale and accessible by billions of humans in real time, will require a 1,000-times increase in computational efficiency from today’s state of the art.
2. Precipitated by the pandemic, we are transitioning away from the nine-to-five commute and turning our backs on the traditional office setting, enabled by a newfound love of virtual meetings.
3. One company not only let you see how its sunglasses look like on your face, it is also working on using augmented reality to virtually show you how the world will look like through different lenses.

A. Only I and III

B. Only II and III

C. Only III

D. Only I and II

E. All I, II and III

Question 44. In the question below, a situation is given, followed by statements that may or may not be possible reasons for the situation. Select the option that best describes the reason for the situation in the question.

Situation: Drugs giant Pfizer has said it expects $15bn (≤11bn) of sales this year of the coronavirus vaccine it developed with German firm BioNTech. The vaccine was one of the first to be authorised for use by countries including the UK and the US.

I. In England, around 28 million eligible individuals are yet to be vaccinated – around two-thirds of the population

II. Many countries around the world have been scrambling to vaccinate their populations in a bid to save lives and aid economic recovery.

III. Within age groups, the NHS is trying to ensure that all people, regardless of deprivation, geography, or ethnicity, have equal uptake of the vaccine.

A. Only I

B. Only II and III

C. Only I and II

D. Only III

E. All I, II and III

Question 45. In the question below, a situation is given, followed by statements that may or may not be possible reasons for the situation. Select the option that best describes the reason for the situation in the question.

Situation: The American Academy of Pediatrics, the American Academy of Child and Adolescent Psychiatry, and the Children’s Hospital Association declared a national emergency in child and adolescent mental health in the fall of 2021. This may be a contributing factor to the increase in school shooting incidents across the US.

I. During the past two decades more than 85% of school shootings in the US have been committed by people younger than 25, and the majority by children under 18

II. According to National Alliance of Mental Illness, nearly 20% of high school students have seriously contemplated suicide, and 9% have attempted suicide.

III. While in the past it was easier for adolescents to talk to a trusted adult in their extended family during turbulent times as it was common for three generations of a family to live nearby, it has become rare these days with the prevalence of nuclear families.

A. Only I

B. Only II and III

C. Only I and II

D. Only III

E. All I, II and III

Direction (Q46-Q50): Read the following and answer the questions: 

In a certain coded language, 

‘Calm breeze blows softly’ is coded as ‘6s# 17j$ 10m! 3t$’ 

‘Happy kids play outside’ is coded as ‘9x? 10e@ 17i& 8u%’ 

‘Bright moon shines high’ is coded as ‘18p$ 0r& 14p# 1j*’ 

Question 46. What may be the code for “Mentioned”?

A. 9k*

B. 9m*

C. 8k*

D. 6l?

E. 9m#

Question 47. What is the code for “Parenting”?

A. 7g?

B. 7r*

C. 9g?

D. 7g$

E. None of these

Question 48. Code ‘2x!’ is for which of the following words?

A. Chronical

B. Dormant

C. Cool

D. Calibri

E. Charisma

Question 49.  How the word “Vikram” coded as?

A. 3n*

B. 9n(

C. 13m?

D. 9n*

E. 7k!

Question 50. How the word “banking selection” be coded as 

A. 5n& 5l@

B. 9k! 5l@

C. 5m# 5k$

D. 6a$ 9k!

E. 4m# 6l%

Question 51. The question given below consists of a statement, followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument.

Statement: Should over the top (OTT) platforms such as Whatsapp, Signal and Facebook be required to obtain licences to operate in a country just like telecom companies both of which provide services like voice calling, messaging and video calling?

Arguments:

I. Yes, because it will create a level playing field by making OTT platforms liable to pay taxes and levies that telecom companies already do.

II. Yes, this will ensure OTT platforms’ compliance with security requirements, lawful interception and other regulatory obligations imposed on.

A. Only argument I is strong

B. Only argument II is strong

C. Either I or II is strong

D. Neither I nor II is strong

E. Both I and II are strong

Question 52. The question given below consists of a statement, followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the argument is either a ‘strong’ argument or ‘weak’ argument or both or neither of them is ‘strong’ or ‘weak’.

Despite the popularity of economic liberal ideas and globalization, the increasing severity of energy and environmental problems has raised many questions about the ability of markets to solve these problems. Kyoto Agreement ultimately resulted in the creation of a market-based system. The privatization of environmental problems has helped to reduce greenhouse gas emissions while generating significant amounts of wealth.

Arguments:

I. Yes, it is important to balance economic goals with environmental protection to ensure a sustainable future for generations to come.

II. No, economic liberal ideas and globalisation directly help in conserving climate and thereby there is no need to implement the market-based system.

A. Only argument I is strong

B. Only argument II is strong

C. Either I or II is strong

D. Neither I nor II is strong

E. Both I and II are strong

Question 53. Each question given below consists of a statement, followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument.

Statement: Should the demand of exporters, who are facing liquidity challenges, for extending GST (Goods and Services Tax) exemption on freight be met?

Arguments:

I. Yes, because GST on export freight is revenue-neutral as exporters can claim a refund after making the payment, so extending the exemption will improve exporters’ liquidity.

II. Yes, because GST on export freight is levied by the central government, which has the discretionary powers to provide exemption from the tax.

A. Only argument I is strong

B. Only argument II is strong

C. Either I or II is strong

D. Neither I nor II is strong

E. Both I and II are strong

Question 54. Read the following group of statements and identify the main conclusion in the argument.

Considering the rate at which these photo voltaic panels are being installed around the country, India is expected to generate an enormous amount of waste over the next 20 years. In fact, India is expected to become one of the top five leading photovoltaic waste producers worldwide by 2050. India should note that it doesn’t find itself caught unprepared against a new problem in the future for two good reasons.

First, simply clubbing PV waste with other e-waste could lead to confusion. Secondly, the waste generated from PV modules and their components is classified as ‘hazardous waste’ in India.

A. Implementing e-waste management programs can be expensive and may require significant financial resources.

B. E-waste management requires specialized equipment and technical expertise, which may not be readily available in all areas.

C. E-waste management often involves complex regulations and requirements that can be difficult to navigate.

D. India should formulate and implement provisions specific to PV waste treatment within the ambit of the e-waste guidelines.

E. Now is the right time for it to install clear policy directives, well-established recycling strategies, and greater collaboration to tackle waste.

Question 55. In the question below, two statements (I) and (II) are given. These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choices correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements.

I. Long forced to take a back seat to the arabica bean, robusta is now becoming the flavour of note for the speciality coffee industry.

II. Everyone, from planters to roasters and coffee companies, is promoting robusta, looking at new flavour extraction processes more suited to the bean’s unique properties, trying to extract complex flavours from the bean – unheard of even a couple of years ago.

A. Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect

B. Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect

C. Both the statements I and II are independent causes

D. Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes

E. Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause

Question 56. In the question given below, a passage/statement is given followed by three statements which may or may not strengthen/weaken the assertion made in the passage. Answer the questions as per the individual direction given.

If every crevasse in your home is overflowing with objects you haven’t used in more than five years, it would be fairly safe to say you are a hoarder. And if the very thought of parting with possessions you no longer need creates distress, you may have hoarding disorder. You are not alone – most Indians are known for hoarding, a habit probably triggered by generations of making do and not having enough.

Which of the following, if true, would strengthen the argument made in the above passage?

I. Collectors typically acquire possessions in an organised and targeted fashion whereas hoarders acquire objects impulsively, with little active planning.

II. A typical Indian middle-class family has a room exclusively for holding all the big and small items hidden by generations of family members.

III. Most Indians are constantly worrying about survival, prompting them to keep things in case they are needed in the future.

A. Only I and II

B. Only II

C. Only I and III

D. Only II and III

E. All I, II and III

Direction (Q57-Q60): Answer the following questions on the basis of the information given below.

Eight people Alex, Ben, Charlie, Daniel, Peter, Quinin, Rachel, and Sophia are seated around a circular table facing the centre. Some information about their relationships and position is given:

• Sophia’s husband is sitting two seats to the right of Ben.
• Quinn is seated two seats to the left of Daniel’s daughter.
• Quinn is Rachel’s sister.
• Sophis’s husband is not sitting next to Quinn.
• There is one person between Quinn and Alex.
• Similarly, there is one person between Peter and Sophia’s mother.
• Alex is the father of Rachel. Charlie is not sitting next to Quinn.
• Sophia’s mother is seated immediately to the right of Daniel, who is Sophia’s brother.
• There is one person between Sophia and Rachel.
• Peter is not sitting next to Rachel, who is the mother of charlie.

Question 57. Who is sitting second to the right of Ben?

A. Rachel

B. Alex

C. Quinn

D. Peter

E. Sophia

Question 58. How many people are seated between Quinn and Alex?

A. Three

B. Four

C. Two

D. One

E. None

Question 59. Who is the sister of Rachel?

A. Quinn

B. Charlie

C. Peter

D. Sophia

E. Ben

Question 60. What is position of Peter’s grandmother with respect to Quinn?

A. 2nd to the right

B. 3rd to the right

C. 3rd to the left

D. 4th to the right

E. 5th to the left

RBI Grade B Reasoning 2023 PYQ Answer Key

Below is the answer key for the Reasoning questions asked in the RBI Grade B 2023 exam:

With access now available to practice the RBI Grade B 2023 Reasoning PYQs and their answer key, let’s discuss the valuable insights you can gain from these questions.

What Can You Learn From the RBI Grade B 2023 Reasoning PYQs?

So, what exactly can you learn by diving into the RBI Grade B 2023 Reasoning PYQs? The answers lie in the following key areas:

Number of Questions Asked from Each Reasoning Topic in the RBI Grade B 2023 Exam

Understanding the number of questions asked from each reasoning topic in the 2023 exam is crucial for your preparation. Below is the distribution of questions across various logical Reasoning topics in the RBI Grade B 2023 exam:

• Puzzle: 15
• Seating Arrangement: 14
• Analytical Reasoning: 9
• Input Output: 5
• Data Sufficiency: 4
• Syllogism: 4
• Coding Decoding: 3
• Alphanumeric Symbolic Series: 2
• Inequality: 2
• Blood Relation: 2

Difficulty Level of Reasoning in RBI Grade B 2023

Practicing the Reasoning PYQ of the RBI Grade B 2023 exam will give you a clear understanding of its difficulty level, helping you adjust your preparation strategy accordingly. Overall, the difficulty level of the 2023 Reasoning section was moderate.

Below, I have mentioned the difficulty level of the questions asked in the RBI Grade B Reasoning 2023 PYQ:

• Total Questions: 60
• Easy: 0
• Moderate: 40
• Difficult: 20

Important Reasoning Topics for the RBI Grade B Exam

Examining the distribution of questions from each topic in the RBI Grade B 2023 Reasoning section is essential for pinpointing high-weightage areas that are likely to be significant in the upcoming exam.

Based on the 2023 PYQs, focus on the following key Reasoning topics to prioritize in your RBI Grade B manager preparation:

• Seating Arrangement
• Alphanumeric Series
• Coding Decoding
• Ranking and Order
• Blood Relation
• Syllogism
• Puzzles
• Inequality
• Direction Sense
• Critical Reasoning

How Important Are Reasoning PYQ for RBI Grade B Preparation?

Practicing Reasoning Ability PYQs is essential for effective preparation for the RBI Grade B exam, offering several key benefits:

• Measure Your Preparation Level
  • By solving Reasoning PYQs, you can accurately assess your current preparation level. 
  • This helps you identify your strengths and, more importantly, areas where improvement is needed.
• Sharpen Skills and Speed
  • Consistent practice with past logical and critical Reasoning questions enhances your speed and accuracy. 
  • It also allows you to develop effective time management strategies for tackling reasoning questions in the exam.
• Fuel Your Confidence
  • Addressing weaknesses and regularly practicing PYQs significantly boosts your confidence. 
  • This positive reinforcement motivates you to maintain and increase your preparation efforts.
• Effective Revision Resource
  • Reasoning PYQs are also an invaluable tool for effective revision
  • It helps you identify any remaining knowledge gaps and reinforces the logical concepts and problem-solving techniques you’ve learned.

Bonus Points: 

1. Topics absent in 2023 (Present in 2022): No such topics.
2. Topics present in 2023 (Absent in 2022): Coding Decoding and Alphanumeric Series.
3. Topics absent in both 2023 & 2022: Direction Sense.

What Next?

Armed with insights into the topic-wise distribution, difficulty level, and key areas of the RBI Grade B 2023 Reasoning PYQs, your next strategic move is to practice and analyze the above mentioned questions along with the Reasoning PYQs from other previous years. 

Following this focused effort, remember to broaden your preparation by practicing and analysing year-wise PYQs of the other RBI Grade B Phase 1 subjects.

Here are the subject-wise & year-wise PYQs of the RBI Grade B Phase 1 exam:

• RBI Grade B 2024 Exam PYQ
  • RBI Grade B 2024 Reasoning PYQ
  • RBI Grade B 2024 Quant PYQ
  • RBI Grade B 2024 GA PYQ
  • RBI Grade B 2024 English PYQ

• RBI Grade B 2023 Exam PYQs
  • RBI Grade B 2023 Quant PYQ
  • RBI Grade B 2023 GA PYQ
  • RBI Grade B 2023 English PYQ

Kick off your RBI Grade B previous years’ question practice using these curated resources.