RBI Grade B Reasoning 2024 Previous Year Questions | Answer Key

Analysing the reasoning section of the RBI Grade B previous year question papers of 2024 Phase 1 is crucial for every aspirant. 

• For first-time candidates, it helps you understand the number of questions asked from each topic, their difficulty level, and the high-weightage topics to prioritize in your preparation.
• For re-attempt aspirants, this analysis allows you to identify and learn from the mistakes made in your previous attempt, helping you avoid them in your next attempt.

With the RBI Grade B 2025 notification out, the preparation time is limited. To clear the sectional reasoning cut off, you need focused practice on past year reasoning questions.

In this article, I’ll provide a detailed analysis of the RBI Grade B 2024 Phase 1 Reasoning previous year questions, offering valuable insights to prepare for the Reasoning section. 

Reasoning PYQs of the RBI Grade B 2024 Phase 1 Exam

Before you jump into practicing the RBI Grade B reasoning PYQs of the 2024 Prelims exam, you should know that it is an online exam, and RBI does not officially release the exam question paper. 

However, with the help of my team of experts at EduTap, I have compiled a memory-based set of 60 reasoning ability questions from the RBI Grade B previous year paper 2024 Phase 1 exam. 

Below are the 60 memory-based Reasoning questions from the RBI Grade B 2024 exam, followed by their answers.

Directions (Q1-Q5): Study the following data carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

There are seven persons I, J, K, L, M, N, and O who are born in different years viz. 1968, 1976, 1983, 1991, 1996, 2001 and 2007 but not in the same order. Calculations are done with respect to the year 2024 and assuming the month and date to be the same. They all collect different things viz. key chain, eraser, ring, pen, cream, sharpener and bottle but not in the same order.

Only one person is born between the one who collects the bottle and N, whose age is a prime number. M’s age is a prime number, and he is born immediately before the one who collects the sharpener. Neither M nor N is the youngest. I’s age is multiple of 4. K is 5 years younger than

J. The age of O is three times the age difference between the one who collects sharpeners and J. Only two people are born between the one who collects keychains and I, who does not collect bottles. As many persons born between L and the one who collects bottles are the same as between the persons who were born between N and the one who collects eraser. K is not older than the person who collects the ring. The person who collects the ring is born after the person who collects the cream.

Question 1: What is the difference between the ages of M and N?

A. 26 Years

B. 15 Years

C. 16 Years

D. 18 Years

E. 14 Years

Question 2: Who among the following collected bottles?

A. One who was born in 1991

B. One whose age is 56 years

C. One whose age is 28 years

D. One who was born in 1983

E. None of these

Question 3: How many people are born between O and the one who collected Pen?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

E. None

Question 4: Which is the incorrect combination?

A. 1976 – O – Cream

B. Key chain – J – 33

C. M – 22 – Pen

D. N – 1983 – Ring

E. K – 28 – Bottle

Question 5: What is the difference between the ages of the one who collected the key chain and the one who collected the cream?

A. 15

B. 13

C. 12

D. 11

E. 17

Direction (Q6-Q10): Study the following data carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

A certain number of persons are sitting in a row facing north and they belong to different countries. A sits three places away from D. Only three persons sit between J and D who belong to Qatar. Four persons sit between A and the one who belongs to Australia. B belongs to Mongolia and sits second to the right of the one who belongs to Australia and second to the left of C who doesn’t sit at the end of the row. The one who belongs to Finland sits fourth from one of the ends of the row and sits adjacent to the one who belongs to Mongolia. G sits four places away from the one who belongs to Finland. Six persons sit between G and the one who belongs to Oman. The one who belongs to Yemen sits third to the right of the one who belongs to Oman. Three persons sit between the one who belongs to Yemen and M who sits immediately to the left of the one who belongs to Japan, who sits at one of the extreme ends. The number of persons sitting in the row is a prime number.

Question 6: How many people are sitting in the row?

A. 26

B. 23

C. 22

D. 15

E. 20

Question 7: Which of the following statement(s) is/are true with respect to the final arrangement?

A. A sits third to the right of the one who belongs to Mongolia

B. G sits immediate right of J

C. B sits immediate right of the one who belongs to Australia

D. A sits third to the left of M

E. Both C and D

Question 8: How many persons are sitting between the persons who belong to Yemen and Qatar in the final arrangement?

A. 6

B. 1 less than between G and J

C. 3 more than between B and D

D. Same as the number of persons sitting to the right of D

E. 10

Question 9: How many people are sitting between the people who belong to Finland and Japan in the final arrangement?

A. The number is a multiple of 5

B. The number is a multiple of 6

C. The number is a multiple of 7

D. The number is a multiple of 4

E. 8

Question 10: What is the incorrect combination with respect to the final arrangement?

A. B and the persons belong to Finland

B. The persons belong to Japan and M

C. G and D

D. A and J

E. C and A

Question 11: If 2 is subtracted from the second, fifth, seventh and eighth digits of the number ‘543637894’ and add 1 to the remaining numbers then eliminate those digits which are repeating in the new number. Then arrange the remaining digits in descending order from left to right direction. Find the sum of the second digit from the left and the third digit from the right of the number after the rearrangement.

A. 9

B. 4

C. 3

D. 11

E. 5

Question 12: If we take the third letter from the left end of each word of the set of words to form a four-letter meaningful English word. Then which of the following will not form a meaningful English word?

A. Came, Mile, Male, Shine

B. Began, Glove, Cow, Cold

C. Door, Bank, Green, Battle

D. Care, Tank, Hassle, Foam

E. Towel, Given, Flame, Chair

Question 13: Read the statement carefully and answer the question that follows.

A comprehensive analysis involving 50 NEET coaching institutes across City Y, randomly chosen from diverse socio- economic backgrounds, revealed an intriguing pattern. The study found that coaching institutes with the highest average student test scores were typically smaller in size; indeed, the top-performing 7% of coaching institutes were consistently among the smallest 7% in terms of student enrollment. This suggests that fostering the growth of smaller coaching institutes could be a key strategy for enhancing overall student performance in NEET.

Which of the following can be inferred from the above statement?

A. Coaching institutes with small sizes have good teaching methods.

B. The size of the coaching institutes is correlated with student’s achievements.

C. Small coaching institutes have better student-teacher ratios than large schools.

D. It is a coincidence that smaller coaching institutes have better student achievement.

E. None of the above

Question 14: Read the statement carefully and answer the question that follows.

There appears to be significant concern regarding the new environmental regulations imposed on small manufacturers. The regulations, introduced as part of a 2023 policy aimed at reducing carbon emissions, require small manufacturers to pay substantial heavy fines if their operations exceed specified emission thresholds.

Which of the following provides a strong reason for why these new environmental regulations might be viewed as excessively harsh and unfair to small manufacturers?

A. Large corporations often have more resources to implement advanced pollution control technologies than smaller manufacturers.

B. Stricter regulations could lead small manufacturers to adopt more innovative, eco-friendly production methods. 

C. The fines collected from small manufacturers could be used to fund large-scale environmental conservation projects.

D. Imposing heavy fines on small manufacturers could drive them out of business, leading to job losses and economic harm in local communities.

E. Enhanced regulations are essential for global environmental leadership and will ensure compliance with international climate agreements.

Question 15: Read the statement carefully and answer the question that follows.

A recent study analyzed the performance of various types of community centers across different neighbourhoods. It found that centers with more specialized programs, such as after-school tutoring or mental health workshops, consistently had higher engagement and positive outcomes compared to those offering more general services.

Which of the following provides the best reason why specialized community centers might be considered more effective than those offering general services?

A. Specialized programs attract more diverse funding sources and sponsorships than general programs.

B. Community centers with specialized programs may better meet specific needs of the local population, leading to more targeted and impactful support.

C. General community centers are more cost-effective and can serve a larger number of people with less financial investment.

D. Specialized programs often require more trained staff and resources, which could lead to higher operational costs.

E. Community centers with specialized programs may have higher visibility and recognition within the community, attracting more volunteers.

Directions (Q16-Q18): Study the following data carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

Ekta started driving from point P towards the east for 5 km and reached point Q. Then, she took a right turn and drove 8 km to reach point R where she took a left turn. Driving for 5 km in the same direction, she takes a left turn from point S and drives for 14 km. Then she takes a right turn from point T and drives for another 3 km and finally stops at point U. R is 20m to the north of point G. Point T is 8m to the east of point H. Point P is 16m to the north of point W. Point Y is 20m to the south of point T. Point O is 18m to the east of point W.

Question 16: If the petrol cost is Rs.89/litre and the mileage of the car is 5 kmpl, then what will be the total cost of the journey of Ekta to reach its destination?

A. Rs. 533

B. Rs. 623

C. Rs. 633

D. Rs. 528

E. Rs. 632

Question 17: What is the shortest distance between the points W and U?

A. √233 km

B. √133 km

C. √653 km

D. √63 km

E. √630 km

Question 18: Which of the following is incorrect?

A. G is southwest of T

B. O is southeast of U

C. Y is east of W

D. P is southwest of H

E. Y is northwest of O

Direction (Q19-Q20): In the question below there are some conclusions followed by four or five sets of statements in the options. You have to take the four given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the set of statements satisfies the conclusions.

Question 19: Conclusions:

Some trees are not plants. Some plants may be wood. Statements:

A. No flowers are trees. All trees are leaves. No leaves are wood. Some plants are leaves.

B. Some flowers are trees. No trees are leaves. No leaves are wood. All plants are leaves.

C. Some flowers are trees. Some trees are leaves. All leaves are wood. No plants are leaves.

D. No flowers are trees. No trees are leaves. All leaves are wood. No plants are leaves.

E. None of These

Question 20: Conclusions:

Some rows are not tables Statements:

A. Some rows are lines. No lines are columns. All columns are tables.

B. No rows are lines. Some lines are columns. Some columns are tables.

C. 41% rows are lines. No lines are columns. No columns are tables.

D. Some rows are lines. No lines are columns. Only columns are tables.

E. None of These

Question 21: If all the consonants of the word ‘MALNOURISHED’ changed into previous letter and all the vowel changed into the next letter in English alphabetical series and then all the letters arranged in English alphabetical order from left to right then how many consonants are there English alphabetical series between the second letter from left and fourth letter from right end of the newly formed word?

A. 10

B. 6

C. 7

D. 11

E. 9

Directions (Q22-Q26): Study the following data carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

Eight persons are sitting around the square table. Four persons are sitting at the corner faces inside the table and four persons are sitting at the middle faces outside the table. The persons sitting at the corner like different flowers – Jasmine, Rose, Lily and Sunflower. The persons sitting in the middle like different fruits – Watermelon, Mango, Kiwi and Orange. The one who likes Orange sits second to the left of the one who likes Kiwi, who is not the immediate neighbour of A. Only one person sits between B and the one who likes sunflowers. The one who likes jasmine sits third to the right of H. A sits second to the right of the one who likes jasmine. The one who likes watermelon is an immediate neighbour of A. The one who likes roses sits opposite to the one who likes lily. C sits second to the right of G. F faces the one who likes sunflowers. E and G sit opposite to each other. E does not like sunflowers. Lily is not an immediate neighbour of the one who likes mango. Neither D nor C sits second to the right of the one who likes lilies. The one who likes Rose does not sit immediately to the left of the one who likes watermelon.

Question 22: Who sits fourth to the right of C?

A. Person who sits opposite to E

B. Person who sits immediate left of B

C. Person who sits immediate right of A

D. Person who sits second to right of F

E. Person who sits third to right of E

Question 23: Who sits sixth to the left of the one who likes watermelon?

A. Person who sits third to the right of C

B. Person who sits second to the right of H

C. Person who sits opposite to C

D. Person who sits second to the left of E

E. None of these

Question 24: Which of the following statements is/are true with respect to E?

I. Both D and B are the immediate neighbours of E

II. E sits second to the left of the person who sits opposite to C

III. More than two persons sit between E and F from both directions.

A. Only I and II

B. Only II

C. Only II and III

D. All I, II and III

E. Only I

Question 25: Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence, form the group.

Which is the one that does not belong to the group?

A. DA

B. EC

C. CG

D. FB

E. DE

Question 26: In which of the following statements the first person sits to theimmediate left and immediate right of the second and third persons respectively?

I. BGC

II. FCG

III. GAD

A. Only I

B. Only II

C. Only I and III

D. All I, II and III

E. None of these

Question 27: In art history, the portrayal of animals has changed over time. Early artworks often showed animals in a very stylized or symbolic way. Recently, it has been observed that many paintings by Lee, a modern artist, depict animals in an exaggeratedly sentimental manner. Some argue that Lee must have a personal bias towards animals, given the emotional nature of these portrayals.

Which of the following weakens the argument above?

A. Other modern artists also depict animals in a sentimental manner.

B. Lee has a personal collection of animal-themed artwork.

C. The way animals are depicted in art does not necessarily reflect the artist’s personal feelings towards animals.

D. Lee’s paintings are known for being emotionally intense in general.

E. None of these

Question 28: Even though the Indian market size is often considered limited and challenging, generally, it’s very difficult for foreigners to do business in India because India doesn’t like foreigners and keeps them away. The biggest proof of this is brand X, which has many stores in Russia, but not a single fully-owned store in India, simply because India doesn’t like overseas businessmen.

Which of the following is an assumption made in drawing the conclusion above?

A. There is nothing that can make India like foreign businessmen.

B. The fact that brand X has many stores in Russia proves that Russia loves foreigners.

C. The limited size of the Indian market hasn’t stopped brand X from entering India.

D. Any foreign brands other than brand X are also not present in India.

E. Russia’s policies are probably more favourable towards foreigners than India’s  policies.

Directions (Q29-Q33): Study the following data carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

Eight persons – P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W visited their favourite place one after another, but not necessarily in the same order. Each person visits different places viz., London, Dubai, France, Singapore, Kuala Lumpur, Istanbul, Tokyo and Bangkok. Q visited three persons after P and just before the one who visited Dubai. As many persons visited before S as after the one who visited Singapore. Only three persons visited a place between W and the one who visited London. Neither Q nor R visited France. P visited two persons before the one who visited London. U visited Bangkok but before the one who visited Singapore. As many persons visited between W and Q as between R and the one who visited London. More than two persons visited between R and S, who visited Tokyo but after R. The one who visited Kuala Lumpur visited immediately after V.

Question 29: As many persons visited before Q as after______.

A. One who visited Istanbul

B. One who visited immediately before the one who visited Bangkok

C. One who visited Kuala Lumpur

D. One who visited between V and T

E. None of these

Question 30: Who among the following persons visited a place at first?

A. One who visited Kuala Lumpur

B. One who visited Dubai

C. One who visited Singapore

D. One who visited two persons before U

E. One who visited two persons before S

Question 31: Who among the following persons visited Singapore?

A. P

B. S

C. V

D. U

E. R

Question 32: If all the persons visited their favourite places in the alphabetical order from last to first, then how many persons remain unchanged in their position?

A. Four

B. Three

C. Two

D. Five

E. One

Question 33: What is the position of V with respect to the final arrangement?

A. Immediately before the one who visited Dubai

B. Three persons after the one who visited France

C. V is the fifth person to visit its favourite place

D. Four persons before the one who visited Tokyo

E. None of these

Directions (Q34-Q36): Study the following data carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

Six kids- P, Q, R, S, T, and U have different weights. The weight of P is four more than that of Q but less than R. U’s weight is thrice that of T. Q’s weight is more than T. The number of persons heavier than R is the same as the number of persons lighter than Q. At least one person is heavier than R. U is heavier than S. The number of persons between R and S is the same as the number of persons between U and P. T’s weight is 30 kg. R’s weight is 5kg more than P.

Question 34: Who among the following persons is not heavier than Q?

A. U

B. P

C. R

D. S

E. All are heavier than Q

Question 35: If Q’s weight is 59 kg, then what is the difference between the weight of U and R?

A. 1kg

B. 23kg

C. 24kg

D. 2kg

E. 27kg

Question 36: What is the correct order of the persons in increasing order of their weights?

A. T, Q, P, S, R, U

B. Q, T, S, P, R, U

C. T, Q, S, P, R, U

D. U, T, Q, P, R, S

E. T, U, Q, P, R, S

Directions (Q37-Q41): Study the following data carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

Six persons viz. A, B, C, D, E and F are living in a six-storey building such that the lowermost floor is numbered as 1 and the topmost floor is numbered as 6, but not necessarily in the same order. Each person likes different fruits viz. Kiwi, Grapes, Guava, Orange, Watermelon and Papaya. Each person also belongs to a different place.

The one who likes Guava lives in the adjacent floor of B. A belongs to Raipur. Only one person lives between the one who belongs to Raipur and B. Only three people live between A and the one who likes Kiwi. D lives immediately above A and two floors above the one who likes Watermelon.

Only one person lives between A and the one who belongs to Nagpur, who lives two floors above the one who likes Grapes. The number of floors below the one who likes Grapes is the same as above C. More than one floor is there between the one who likes Orange and the one who belongs to Kashipur. E does not belong to Ambala. There are two floors between the one who belongs to Ranchi and the one who likes Papaya who does not live immediately below the one who likes Guava. F lives above the one who belongs to Keshav Garh but not immediately above.

Question 37: Who belongs to Ambala and Ranchi respectively?

A. C, F

B. F, E

C. E, F

D. A, D

E. D, A

Question 38: Which of the following is correct?

A. The one who lives on fourth floor likes Papaya

B. The one who lives on fifth floor belongs to Keshav Garh

C. The one who likes Grapes lives on third floor

D. The one who likes Grapes lives on fifth floor

E. The one who likes Orange belongs to Nagpur

Question 39: How many persons live between F and the one who belongs to Keshav Garh?

A. Four

B. Two

C. Five

D. Three

E. One

Question 40: Which of the following is the incorrect combination?

A. F – Kiwi – Sixth Floor

B. Guava – C – Ambala

C. D – Papaya – Raipur

D. Watermelon – Kashipur – E

E. A – Grapes – Second Floor

Question 41: Find the odd one out.

A. Ranchi, Ambala

B. Nagpur, Kashipur

C. Raipur, Kashipur

D. Nagpur, Ranchi

E. Nagpur, Raipur

Question 42: Consider the following passage and answer the question that follows.

The mayor of City Y is up for re-election in a month’s time and is extremely apprehensive of his chances. According to a recent survey conducted by a news channel in Somphul, City Y’s most populous Town, more than 80 percent of the respondents stated that they would not vote for the current mayor.

The mayor’s apprehensions are based on which of the following assumptions?

A. The people who were part of the survey will in no case change their mind.

B. The opinion of the residents of Somphul is a pretty accurate representation of the opinion of the residents of City Y as a whole.

C. The mayor was recently involved in a corruption scandal that received a lot of negative publicity in the print media.

D. The mayor did not do enough to help the victims of the hurricane that struck City Y last year.

E. In the last three elections for the post of the mayor in City Y, the incumbent mayor has never been re-elected to office.

Question 43: Consider the following passage and answer the question that follows.

According to a nationwide survey of college students, 70% of the students who majored in Science in high school were likely to pursue an engineering degree in college. Interestingly, according to the same survey, 70% of the students pursuing an engineering degree in college had not majored in science in high school.

Which of the following inferences is best supported from the above statements? 

A. The number of students who studied science in high school is the same as the number of students who are pursuing an engineering degree in college but who did not major in science in high school.

B. There are more students pursuing science in high school than there are students pursuing science in colleges in the country.

C. There are more students pursuing an engineering degree who had taken up a non-science major in high school than there are students pursuing an engineering degree who had majored in science in school.

D. A student’s major in high school has no impact on the specialization she chooses to pursue in college.

E. 30% of the students pursuing an engineering degree in the country had taken up a non-science major in high school.

Question 44: Consider the following passage and answer the question that follows.

Dr. Ranjan stunned the world in 2002 when he revealed that certain therapy sessions may help breast cancer patients live longer. These sessions also seem to help them live better. So, if you suffer from breast cancer there is a good chance that you can improve your life, and maybe even extend it, by joining a professionally led therapy session that uses Dr. Ranjan’s supportive-expressive model.

If the statements above are true, which of the following conclusions is most strongly supported by them?

A. It would be a good idea for cancer patients to be part of some therapy sessions.

B. Being part of a therapy session increases a breast cancer patient’s desire to get better.

C. One way of curing breast cancer is to

make the patient join a therapy session.

D. Being part of a therapy session can have beneficial effects for a certain age of people.

E. Doctors recommend joining therapy sessions as a means to alleviate the discomfort caused by breast cancer.

Direction (Q45-Q46): The question given below consists of a statement, followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is either a ‘strong’ argument or ‘weak’ argument or both or neither of them is ‘strong’ or ‘weak’.

Question 45: Statement: Transparency provides clear benefits by allowing investors and depositors to make informed choices and enabling regulators to respond quickly to issues.

Arguments:

I. Yes, transparency plays a critical role in ensuring the stability of the financial system, especially within banks.

II. Yes, by preventing bank managers from hiding troubled assets, transparency helps mitigate the risk of sudden bank failures caused by poor asset quality.

A. Only I is strong

B. Only II is strong

C. Both I and II are strong

D. Either I or II is strong

E. Neither I nor II is strong

Question 46: The liberal economic view suggests that for developing countries to achieve significant growth, they should integrate themselves into the global marketplace, particularly through trade and investment. By focusing on their unique strengths, these nations can harness the advantages of international trade to bolster their economies. Additionally, attracting foreign investment and receiving aid from wealthier countries and international agencies are vital for enhancing their economic infrastructure. 

Arguments:

I. No, developing countries should also focus on improving their domestic market infrastructure to build national pride and unity.

II. Yes, adopting strategies like open trade policies and encouraging foreign investment are the most effective approaches for advancing economic development in emerging economies.

A. Only I is strong

B. Only II is strong

C. Both I and II are strong

D. Either I or II is strong

E. Neither I nor II is strong

Question 47: Consider the information given in the statements, and answer the question that follows.

The impact of tourism extends beyond mere travel; it intersects with various socio-political dimensions, affecting economies, cultures, and environments. Trends in global tourism offer a reflection of broader global patterns, such as the blending of traditional and modern lifestyles, economic disparities, and the forces driving globalization. Tourism serves as a lens through which the complexities and benefits of these global processes can be observed.

Which of the following best supports the statement above?

I. Most travellers are primarily motivated by leisure activities, which sets them apart from those who migrate for other purposes.

II. Tourism reveals both the advantages and inequalities that influence local and regional  development.

III. The influence of tourism has become increasingly important in shaping a country’s economic vitality and global image.

A. Only I

B. Only I and II

C. Only II and III

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Direction (Q48-Q52): A number and word arrangement machine when given an input of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and steps of rearrangement.

Input: Beauty Sales 32 You 43 Together 21 Reference 28 Extraordinary 57 48

• Extraordinary Beauty Sales 32 You 43 Together 21 Reference 28 48 46
• Reference Extraordinary Beauty Sales 32 You 43 Together 21 28 46 59
• Together Reference Extraordinary Beauty Sales 32 You 21 28 46 59 32
• Beauty Together Reference Extraordinary Sales You 21 28 46 59 32 43
• Sales Beauty Together Reference Extraordinary You 21 46 59 32 43 39
• You Sales Beauty Together Reference Extraordinary 46 59 32 43 39 10

And Step VI is the last step of the above input. As per the logic followed in the above steps, find the appropriate step for the given input and answer each of the following questions that follows.

Input: 12 Layout 23 Designs Preparation 45 66 Motivate 81 Grow Reply 96

Question 48: Which of the following steps will be the last but one for the following input?

A. Grow Reply Designs Motivate Preparation 12 Layout 23 45 107 70 77

B. Layout Designs Motivate Preparation 12 23 Grow Reply 107 70 77 34

C. Reply Layout Designs Motivate Preparation 12 Grow 107 70 77 34 12

D. Reply Grow Layout Designs Motivate Preparation 107 70 77 34 12 23

E. None of these

Question 49: Which of the following is step III of the given input?

A. Grow Reply Designs Motivate Preparation 12 Layout 23 45 107 70 77

B. Designs Motivate Preparation 12 Layout 23 45 Grow Reply 107 70 77

C. Designs Motivate Reply Layout Preparation 12 Grow 107 70 77 34 12

D. Reply Grow Layout  Designs 70 77 Motivate Preparation 107 34 12 23

E. None of these

Question 50: ‘Layout Designs Motivate Preparation 12 23 Grow Reply 107 70 77 34’ represents which step of the given input?

A. IV

B. II

C. V

D. VI 

E. I

Question 51: Which of the following elements lies exactly between 12 and 107 in step II?

A. Grow

B. 66

C. Designs

D. 45

E. Motivate

Question 52: What is the sum of the element which is 6th from the left end in step I and the element which is second from the right end in step VI?

A. 57

B. 65

C. 53

D. 41

E. None of these

Direction (Q53-Q57): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statement is sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and answer the question that follows:

Question 53: Six persons i.e. P, Q, R, S, T and U visited the market on different days of the same week from Monday to Saturday but not necessarily in the same order. Who among the following visited the market immediately after T?

I. R visited immediately before U. Only three persons between R and P. S visited before T. Q visited after S.

II. Only two people visited between P and Q, who visited on Wednesday or Saturday. U visited immediately before

Q. Not more than one person visited between S and T.

A. If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

B. If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question. 

C. If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

D. If the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

E. If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Question 54: How is ‘away’ definitely coded in a language?

I. In a certain code language, ‘keep away from’ is coded as ‘gvzblg’ and ‘keep direct sunlight’ is coded as ‘ug tezb’.

II. In a certain code language, ‘store away from’ is coded as ‘gvlgmq’, and ‘keep closed from’ is coded as ‘zbgvaq’.

A. If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

B. If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

C. If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

D. If the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

E. If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Question 55: How is Y related to D?

I. Q is married to Y. V is the sister of Q. Y has only one daughter J. J is the granddaughter of D.

II. Q is married to Y. Q is the daughter of D. Y is the only child of A.

A. If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

B. If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I alone are not

sufficient to answer the question.

C. If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

D. If the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

E. If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Question 56: Six persons P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Who sits on the immediate right of P?

I. T sits on the immediate right of S, who is not an immediate neighbour of R. S is an immediate neighbour of Q and T. S sits opposite U.

II. R sits on the immediate left of S and second to the right of P, who is an immediate neighbour of T and U.

A. If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

B. If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

C. If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

D. If the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

E. If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Question 57: Which of these following sets of letters, when placed from left to right in the given blanks make ‘F > R’ definitely true?

__< G >__; __< __= F

A. R, O, V, O

B. R, O, O, V

C. V, D, O, R

D. O, D, R, V

E. None of the above

Question 58: Which of the following symbols should replace the question mark (?) in the given expression in order to make the expression ‘G ≥ S’ and ‘F ≤ L’ definitely false?

B≥ S (?) A < G = F (?) E ≤ L

A. ≤, >

B. >, >

C. ≥, >

D. =, <

E. None of the above

Direction (Q59 – Q60): In each question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows/follow from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

Question 59: Statements:

No dog is tiger.

Not a single tiger is cat. Every cat is bear.

Conclusions:

I. Some bears are dogs.

II. No dog is a cat.

III. Some bears are not tigers.

IV. No dog is a bear.

A. Either conclusion I or IV and conclusion III follow

B. Only conclusion I, conclusion II and conclusion III follow

C. Only conclusion II and conclusion IV follow

D. All follows

E. None of these

Question 60: Statements:

No contract is a marriage.

Some marriages are agreements. All agreements are collaborations.

Some collaborations are responsibility. 

Conclusions:

I. Some marriages are not collaborations.

II. Some agreements are not contracts.

III. Some responsibilities are agreements.

IV. Some marriages are not contracts.

A. No conclusion follows

B. Only conclusions II and IV follow

C. Only conclusions II, III and IV follow

D. Only conclusions I, III and IV follow

E. All conclusions follow

RBI Grade B Reasoning 2024 PYQ Answer Key

Below is the answer key for the Reasoning questions asked in the RBI Grade B 2024 exam:

What Can You Learn From the RBI Grade B 2024 Reasoning PYQs?

The RBI Grade B Reasoning 2024 PYQs offer crucial insights for your preparation, including:

Number of Questions Asked from Each Reasoning Topic in the RBI Grade B 2024 Exam

Understanding the weightage of different Reasoning topics is crucial for your preparation, and analyzing the PYQs reveals this through the number of questions asked from each topic.

Here is the question distribution of each logical Reasoning topic in the RBI Grade B 2024 exam:

• Puzzle: 17
• Seating Arrangement:10
• Analytical Reasoning: 11
• Input Output: 5
• Direction Sense: 4
• Syllogism: 3
• Alphanumeric Symbolic Series: 3
• Ranking & Order: 3
• Data Sufficiency: 2
• Coding Decoding: 1
• Blood Relation: 1

Difficulty Level of Reasoning in RBI Grade B 2024

Attempting the Reasoning PYQ of the RBI Grade B 2024 exam will help you understand its difficulty level, allowing you to refine your preparation strategy accordingly. Overall, the difficulty level of the 2024 Reasoning was moderate.

Here’s the difficulty-wise distribution of questions asked in the RBI Grade B Reasoning 2024 PYQ:

• Total Questions: 60
• Easy: 2
• Moderate: 40
• Difficult: 18

Important Reasoning Topics for the RBI Grade B Exam

Analyzing the number of questions from each topic in the RBI Grade B 2024 Reasoning section is key to identifying high-weightage areas likely to be important for the upcoming exam.

Based on the 2024 PYQs, prioritize the following important Reasoning topics for your RBI Grade B preparation:

• Alphanumeric Series
• Coding and Decoding
• Machine Input Output
• Syllogism
• Inequality
• Direction Sense
• Blood Relation
• Ranking and Order
• Data Sufficiency

How Important Are Reasoning PYQ for RBI Grade B Preparation?

Practicing Reasoning Ability PYQs is crucial to smartly prepare for the RBI Grade B exam due to various key benefits:

• Self-Assessment
  • By attempting Reasoning PYQs, you can accurately measure your current preparation level.
  • This helps you pinpoint your strong topics and, more importantly, identify topics where you need to improve.
• Performance Improvement
  • Consistent practice with past logical and critical Reasoning questions of the RBI Grade B exam enhances both your speed and accuracy in solving problems
  • It also enables you to develop effective time management strategies to attempt reasoning questions.
• Confidence Building
  • Practicing PYQs and addressing your weaknesses significantly boosts your confidence.
  • This positive reinforcement motivates you to maintain and even increase your preparation efforts.
• Revision Tool
  • Reasoning PYQs are also an excellent resource for revision.
  • It helps you identify any remaining knowledge gaps and reinforces the logical concepts and problem-solving techniques you’ve learned.

Bonus Points: 

1. Topics absent in 2024 (Present in 2023): Coding Decoding and Alphanumeric Series.
2. Topics present in 2024 (Absent in 2023): Direction Sense and Order & Ranking. 
3. Topics absent in both 2023 & 2024: Blood Relation.

What Next?

Now that you have an understanding of the topic-wise distribution, difficulty level, and important topics of the RBI Grade B 2024 reasoning PYQs. Now, you need to practice and analyse Reasoning PYQs from previous years. After this, you should also focus on practicing year-wise PYQs of other RBI Grade B Phase 1 subjects for comprehensive preparation.

Here are the subject-wise & year-wise PYQs of the RBI Grade B Phase 1 exam:

• RBI Grade B 2024 Exam PYQ
  • RBI Grade B 2024 Quant PYQ
  • RBI Grade B 2024 GA PYQ
  • RBI Grade B 2024 English PYQ
• RBI Grade B 2023 Exam PYQs
  • RBI Grade B 2023 Reasoning PYQ
  • RBI Grade B 2023 Quant PYQ
  • RBI Grade B 2023 GA PYQ
  • RBI Grade B 2024 English PYQ

Having these curated resources readily available, you can confidently start your RBI Grade B PYQ practice today.